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Originally Posted by nomadking
Where does it use the word "female"?
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Your reasoning is flawed.
The ruling itself said that the court made its decision based on “plain reading” of words even when they are not explicitly defined.
It does not need to explicitly include the word “female” for it to be blindingly obvious to anyone (except you) that the ruling does in fact cover the word female. The definition of “female” is clear on exactly the same reasoning that the meaning of “woman” is clear. It’s biology. End of.
Stop being a contrarian. It’s tedious.