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Originally Posted by nomadking
Comparing growth like that is misleading.That is why it is used. 
We've already had previous growth and the others are catching up to a similar overall level.
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What would be the situation if you compared prior to that point to one next year?
EG If X has an increase of 2% first year and 1% the next, and Y has an increase of 1% first year and 2% the next, they are comparable overall. Yet Y has a larger increase in the 2nd year, when looked at in isolation.
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Not sure that playing the OECD victim card works. They don't have it in for the UK.