Quote:
Originally Posted by nomadking
But that "consent" would've been a result of bullying.
In Africa, slaves were taken by Black people. Slavery existed in Africa long before the White slave traders turned up. If anything it is the FACT that slavery existed before, that gave the White slave traders the idea in the first place. Not really much evidence around that time in White "western" societies of slavery, before visiting Africa.
A lot of white people were enslaved, mainly in Islamic countries/areas. The term "White slavery" is not a myth.
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Why would that consent have been a result of bullying?
What does it matter if slavery existed in Africa ? Do you think it somehow justifies Whites enslaving Blacks ?