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Originally Posted by Kursk

May I compliment you on your polite reply. I would have favoured the more concise "eff off einstein"

I do try to be polite at all times.

Anyway back to the debate.

Originally Posted by martyh

I posted the link to show where i got the quote that answered your question of why it was going through the Irish courts .

I alredy knew that.

They are seeking clarification of law "is A50 irrevocable once invoked " nothing whatsoever to do with the democratic decision the government is trying to implement ,incidentally if A50 is revocable then it means the government can press ahead with no need to go through Parliament.

There is no provision in A50 for it to be revoked.

Article 50(2) is quite clear.

A Member State which decides to withdraw shall notify the European Council of its intention. In the light of the guidelines provided by the European Council, the Union shall negotiate and conclude an agreement with that State, setting out the arrangements for its withdrawal, taking account of the framework for its future relationship with the Union. That agreement shall be negotiated in accordance with Article 218(3) of the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union. It shall be concluded on behalf of the Union by the Council, acting by a qualified majority, after obtaining the consent of the European Parliament.

It matters hugely and has massive consequences ,especially if A50 is deemed to have already been invoked which is the other part of the case

.

It hasn't, only our intention to invoke it.( I can see where you're going to head with that one).

If your going down the route of including non voters in a decision then we may as well start including newly qualified voters by the time A50 is invoked or removing deceased voters from the result .The referendum result was simply a snapshot of public feeling at the time ,it's very possible that by March next year the result would be different .The fact remains though that we are leaving the EU based on a decision made by the electorate in june 2016 but not enacted on until March (or later) of 2017

Isn't that where the 63% came from?

Originally Posted by ianch99

If you look at the site you took your screen shot selection from:

http://www.bbc.com/news/politics/eu_referendum/results

You will see:

Leave Vote share 51.9% 17,410,742 VOTES
Remain Vote share 48.1% 16,141,241 VOTES
Electorate 46,501,241

17,410,742 / 46,501,241 = 37.4 % of Electorate voted to Leave

so 62.6% of Electorate did not vote to Leave

I cannot see how these are "ficticious figures pulled out of the air " ..