[Anonymouse]

I recall reading somewhere that in some cases, the woman does show signs of arousal or even climax during sexual assault/rape...but that's only because her body merely responds to stimuli and doesn't know the difference between consensual and non-consensual sex. However, I also read that in the UK and US at least, this is not acceptable as a defence in a court of law - too right.

I've no idea if it's true or not, but I suppose it's plausible. Maybe that was the 'logic' behind this idiot's statement. He should be disbarred immediately in any case,