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Originally Posted by Saaf_laandon_mo
If you were actually referring to the victims colour here's a question.
If a group of white expats in India, formed a paedo gang and started grooming young kids, it would probably be right to assume that most of not all their victims would be asian- even though there must be young white girls in India.
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Correct, they would go for the easy target.
The young white girls in Rochdale, most of which were in care or other vulnerable situations were the easy target.
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Would they be deemed as being (a) racist, or (b) just exploiting the vunerable area of the society in India.
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B
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Would their race actually have anything do do with their motives?
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Their motives are to abuse vulnerable young girls.
Their race has nothing to do with it.
However, the fact of the situation is that it was a gang of asian men, and it will be reported as such.
Whether anyone wants to make it a racial crime, is matter for them, and/or the courts to decide.
My point of view is, I suspect, the same as yours which is that they targeted the most vulnerable girls they could, and they happened to be white. But I don't know I've never asked any of them.
But does it make the crime any less terrible?