Quote:
Originally Posted by Mr Angry
If you deem it to be insulting or if it causes you distress then yes, it is.
---------- Post added at 14:57 ---------- Previous post was at 14:55 ----------
The facts (and indeed the law) say different.
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I'm not sure what a statistical analysis of prosecutions is supposed to prove? At the heart of this issue remains definitions of terms such as 'reasonable' (used in the legislation) and 'verbal abuse or insults' (used in the Civitas document).
How high, exactly, do the courts place the bar on this? At what point does 'reasonable' commentary become 'verbal abuse'?