I was just surfing and noted a quite interesting factoid.
http://www.reuters.com/article/2011/...7100FU20110201
Why would they do that? Simple, wages in Germany have been essentially flat for several years and there has been zero growth in consumer spending in the past 8 years - they are strongly export based rather than concerning themselves with domestic consumption.
http://www.ft.com/cms/s/0/3eea6b80-2...#axzz1CcQ3xwpc
Can you imagine prolonged wage freezes in the UK?