Quote:
Originally Posted by Tharrick
Of course there's consent implied - after all, you're on the internet and we all know that that's all the consent they need :P
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Really? I'm not saying I don't understand the impact of being 'on the internet', no what I mean is, I grant permission on a social network site to specific individuals to see my data. I don't grant it to their ISP. Why does the ISP think they can assume consent? They did not request permission to be my firend, I did not authorise them to view the content. To me that seems a reasonable argument (in law I hope: my privacy, my data, for my friends given access to see it by me, no consent given to their ISP, no consent for Phorm either - where's the implied consent I gave?)
I understand what you are saying (I think) it was intended as flippant - right? (Rather than a factual answer to the question?)
Welcome to the forum, I'm quite new here also. Don't misunderstand my reply, I'm genuinely interested in how this might work, versus the opinion of the ISP.
Hank