I mention his name and he appears
But, regardless of when the t&cs were changed, although it may
appear to be an unfair term under consumer law, has that ever been tested / proven? Is this cited as a specific example of an unfair term that if the customer moves house before the end of his / her minimum contract term, they should be let off the rest of the contract? ntl clearly do not see that there is a problem, after all (playing devils advocate) it's not ntl's fault that you wanted (had) to move house.