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Originally Posted by Paul M
What 
I feel some squirming going on. You clearly stated " There was consent, therefore it was not abuse". Now, when presented with another case of consent, you state it " is abuse".
Which view should we believe you hold ? |
This thread is not about the age of consent, it is about two adults who had reached the age of consent. Any discussion within this thread therefore has to be taken within that context. It is therefore logical that we define consent, for the purposes of this debate, in the same manner as we accept in law.
The two adults in this case can therefore legally give consent, both did, so it is not abuse. In the hypothetical situation you gave as an example, the girl is 11 years old, and therefore even if she says that she consents, she is not considered to be capable of giving consent in the first instance, therefore abuse has occurred.
I`m afraid you'll find no squirming going on here, it is perfectly justified to classify the example in the original case as non-abuse, and the hypothetical example as you gave without any contradiction.