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Originally Posted by dr wadd
That is not the context of the case that is being discussed here. Clearly the example you have quoted is abuse, but its relevancy to this case in question is questionable.
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What
I feel some squirming going on. You clearly stated "
There was consent, therefore it was not abuse". Now, when presented with another case of consent, you state it "
is abuse".
Which view should we believe you hold ?