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Originally Posted by Xaccers
If memory serves, the law does not recognise that a man can be raped by a woman, so therefore as they actually had intercourse, it would have to be consensual on his part too.
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I was just checking back and noticed this.
Under the new Sexual Offences Act 2003 all offences are "gender neutral".
http://www.legislation.hmso.gov.uk/a...3/20030042.htm