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Originally Posted by mrm1
Heres a pause for thought, all hyperthetical of coarse.
Say I was to write a simple program that randomly filled memory with different values. Then I was to execute the random code produced in that memory. Eventually the law of averages guarantees the code produced will be an exact copy of some copyrighted software. (though this would probably take tens to hundreds of years, or only a few min's, as I said it is all hyperthetical).
How would the law stand here. I havnt copied anyones work, downloaded any software, all the code would have been randomly generated by a piece of software I had writen.
This is probably where software patents stand in, but if I do not plan to distribute the said code, then even software patents dont come in to it...........
Just a thought ?
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I believe the infinate number of monkies that eventually typed the works of William Shakespeare ended up defending an infinate number of law suits issued by an infinate number of lawyers on behalf of Bill Gates who assumed he held all rights to everything cos he once sold a copy of "Word" to guy called Bill and insisted that all rights to anything produced anywhere must belong to him as he only ever sells things under licence so nobody else in the universe could ever own anything themselves.